Peter Leithart shares some helpful insights on the Apostle Paul’s silencing of women. I would like to see this spelled out in more detail in a reading of 1 Corinthians 14, but it seems to be a promising line to take.
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I don’t pretend to have a great answer for the text, but there are a couple of questions that arise in light of this proposal from Rosenstock-Huessy. First, Paul does direct them to speak with their husbands if they desire to “learn” something. This does not sound like the emotional wailing or hysterical cries suggested. Second, Paul makes a reference back to what “the law” says. I don’t know what he has in mind, but my first inclination is that it is a particularly Jewish tradition rooted in the Torah. Thoughts?
~Jason